One from a Club Game, 1/98: Answer
Matchpoints, no one vul, you hold
K10 A2 AK1098x A108
You are dealer. What's your plan?
My general plan is: 1-1X; 3 - 3X; 3NT.
1. I have no qualms about opening 2N with this
distribution (e.g., Kx QJx AKQxxx Kx) [Another 18-count!
...K&R = 19.5
--Jeff] but this hand is too rich in tricks
and controls for 2N. I would open 1 and jump to 3. I do
not like opening 1 and jumping to 3N since that is too
much emphasis on just the diamond suit (e.g., Ax Kx AKQxxxx xx).
Regarding the 3 bid, I would make it playing standard
but I like to play that 1-1M, 3 is artificial showing
a strong jump shift with a) + or b) 6331 or 7330 with
shortness in a major* or c) diamonds, no stiff and controls
(this hand). Over 3, responder describes his hand with lots
of major-suit distribution and otherwise relays with 3 to
find out about openers hand. Opener rebids 3 with shortness
in a major, 3 with clubs and 3N with this hand. Over 3,
responder bids 3 to ask opener to bid 3N with shortness in
* with shortness in clubs, opener rebids 2 over a 1 reponse
or 2 over a 1 reponse
My initial reaction was 1. Upon reflection, 2NT is right
since this is matchpoints (I'm less worried about missing
a diamond slam). Followups should be pretty easy.
[I knew he'd open 2NT! --Jeff]
Open 1, rebid 3N over any "likely" response. 2nd choice:
Open 2N. I hate to open 2N on offshape hands, though (one
of my pet peeves).
Open 1, rebid 3.
I ran this through your
K&R evaluator and it came up with
22.2 and 21.9 DK. It seems a little high if you are
evaluating the hand in NT. I open 2NT. [Seems OK. Maybe
a tiny bit high. Would you open 2 if the suit were spades?
I'd not, but it'd be close, so I'll evaluate at about 21.5.
Hmmm...that makes 2NT a mild underbid! --Jeff]
It looks to me like opening 1, preparing to bid 3 over
a one level response. I admit it's a slight underbid, but
I think the alternatives are worse. I expect to play in 3NT
unless partner rebids a major or shows diamond support.
- JEFF AT THE TABLE
- WINNING ACTION
2NT. Partner has Q98x 1087x Qx Jxx. 1...3NT
will work, too, as would Ed's approach, if partner chooses
to respond to 1. My guess is that he wouldn't; his
favorite answer to all bidding problems is "pass." He did
get us to game after 2NT.
3 bid 2NT
2 bid 1...3
2 bid 1...3
1 bid 1...3NT
0 bid 1...2NT (phew)
- JEFF UPON REFLECTION
I think Mike hit it on the nose.
I'd open 1 and rebid 3 if the game were IMPs, but at matchpoints,
I'll give up some of the chances for a diamond slam in exchange
for being sure to have my hand be declarer and maybe reaching
a thin 3NT without divulging anything before the opening lead.
Most of the field opened 1 and rebid 2NT, playing there.
The 1...3 underbids are very bad, I think, not so much because
they are big underbids (not awful at matchpoints if you don't
have anything good to do) but because if partner passes, you're
playing in a minor, almost certain to be a bad score at MPs when
notrump is playable.
Does Cole 2 solve this problem? A K/S forcing 3 rebid does, I guess.
Ed's methods are interesting, but I'm not sure I want to remember
artificial methods that will come up so rarely. If they were
similar to methods over 1-1NT; 3 and 1M-1NT; 3, then I'd be
more interested in a full set of such structures, I suppose.
Feb. 4, 1998